This verse was brought to my attention (and it’s not the first time), thinking that I would know the meaning of it. But in all honesty I was completely stumped (having answered it before, you’d think I’d know!). I knew of the passage but wasn’t prepared to respond to it apologetically. Here is the verse in question:
1 Corinthians 15:29
If the dead will not be raised, then what point is there in people being baptized for those who are dead? Why do it unless the dead will someday rise again?(NLT)
So how do you respond to this? It seems clear that Paul is advocating the baptism of the dead. But in reality I don’t think so. First of all, you cannot base any kind of theological reasoning on one verse alone. There are a lot of inherent dangers doing that, all verses need to be reasoned within the context of the Bible as a whole.
Ok, tackling this verse we need to understand that first and foremost we are not saved through baptism. We are saved by Grace through faith alone (Rom 4:5, Eph 2:8-9 & Titus 3:5-7). Furthermore we cannot do anything that would obtain salvation for someone else. Everyone must make their own free choice (John 1:12, Matt 23:37 & 2 Pet 3:9).
So what is Paul implying with this verse? I believe the interpretation to be that Paul is being rhetorical, that is, he saying the likes of; “What’s the point of baptism if there is no resurrection?” and then responds to it with verse 32, “if there is no baptism, lets just eat, drink and be merry cause we are all going to die tomorrow anyway”.
This problem has caused many a headache for theologians, so please understand that this is just my take on this verse, many others have differing views. Of course the implication of such a verse would demand that we be consistent with the Bible’s teaching in regards to those matters.
Comments